Libel

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  • #4171

    Gibson39501
    Participant

    Someone writes and sends to a 3rd party very derogatory remarks
    “Hostile” “ fears revenge”. Etc. All totally fabricated

    To bolster a case of civil claims against a landlord the person talked about is the property Mgr

    PM hasn’t had a verbal conversation in over a year and never was hostile or intimidating nor is a fear of “escalation of future retaliation”. All communication was done by messaging and kept because guy way weird
    Took us by surprise. But he’s going to want an undetermined amount of $$s for a bogus claim and is using these accusations as his basis. For not moving before 30 day notice.

    By putting those accusations in a letter would that constitute a libel claim by PM?

    • This topic was modified 1 month ago by  Gibson39501.
  • #4179

    Lex
    Keymaster

    Well, slander is defamation by spoken word while libel is defamation by written word.

    In any defamation case, the defense is truth. If what was said/written was true, then there is no defamation.

    A wrinkle here is that (in very general terms) a tort (libel is a tort) has to have court action brought within a year while contractual issues generally have a longer period of time that they can be brought to court. If the letter was done more than a year ago, then it might not be admitted in court. The contents of the letter, however, could be admitted in evidence to prove other facts about the person -like his believability.

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